Two strings (A, B) having linear densities μA=2×10−4kg/m and ,μB=4×10−4kg/m and lengths LA=2.5m and LB=1.5m respectively are joined. Free ends of A and B are tied to two rigid supports C and D, respectively creating a tension of 500 N \in the wire. Two identical pulses, sent from C and D ends, take time t1 and t2, respectively, to reach the joint. The ratio t1/t2 is :
String A: μA=2×10−4 kg/m, LA=2.5 m. String B: μB=4×10−4 kg/m, LB=1.5 m. Tension T = 500 N. Wave speed: v=T/μ. vA=500/(2×10−4)=2.5×106=50010 m/s vB=500/(4×10−4)=1.25×106=5005 m/s t1=LA/vA=2.5/(50010)t2=LB/vB=1.5/(5005)t1/t2=102.5×1.55=1.5102.55=1.522.5=325=652≈67.07≈1.18 The answer is Option 4 : 1.18.
Q2JEE Main 2026MCQ4MThermodynamics
A gas based geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 5.0 litres per minute from 27°C to 87°C. The rate of consumption of the gas is ___ g/s. (take heat of combustion of gas=5.0×104J/g) specific heat capacity of water =4200 J/ kg.°C
Flow rate = 5 L/min = 5 kg/min (water). Temp rise = 87 - 27 = 60°C. Heat required per minute: Q=mcΔT=5×4200×60=1260000 J/min = 21000 J/s. Rate of gas consumption: 5000021000=0.42 g/s. The answer is Option 1 : 0.42 g/s.
Q3JEE Main 2026MCQ4MElectromagnetic Induction
A 1 m long metal rod AB completes the circuit as shown in figure. The area of circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.10 T. lf the resistance of the total circuit is 2Ω then the force needed to move the rod towards right with constant speed (v) of 1.5 m/s is ___ N
The force required to move the rod is given by the formula F=BIL, where B is the magnetic field, I is the current, and L is the length of the rod. First, calculate the induced EMF using EMF=B⋅L⋅v=0.10T×1m×1.5m/s=0.15V. The current I through the circuit is then I=REMF=2Ω0.15V=0.075A. Finally, the force is F=BIL=0.10T×0.075A×1m=7.5×10−2N, thus the answer is B.
Q4JEE Main 2026MCQ4MUnits and Measurements
Consider a modified Bernoulli equation. (P+Bt2A)+ρg(h+Bt)+21ρV2=constant If t has tile dimension of time then the dimensions of A and B are . respectively.
Bernoulli equation: (P+Bt2A)+ρg(h+Bt)+21ρV2=constBt must have dimensions of length (added to h): [B]=[L/T]=M0LT−1. A/(Bt2) must have dimensions of pressure [ML−1T−2]: [A]=[P]×[B]×$[T2]$=ML−1T−2×LT−1×T2=ML0T−1. The answer is Option 4 : [ML0T−1] and [M0LT−1].
Q5JEE Main 2026MCQ4MWave Optics
In a double slit experiment the distance between the slits is 0.1 cm and the screen is placed at 50 cm from the slits plane. When one slit is covered with a transparent sheet having thickness t and refractive index n(=1.5), the central fringe shifts by 0.2 cm. The value of t is____ cm
Let d=0.1 cm=1.0×10−3 m be the slit separation, D=50 cm=0.5 m be the distance of the screen from the slits, shift of the central fringe y0=0.2 cm=0.2×10−2 m=2.0×10−3 m, and refractive index of the sheet n=1.5⇒(n−1)=0.5. Insertion of a transparent sheet of thickness t \in front of one slit introduces an additional optical path difference Δ=(n−1)t. The displacement of the central fringe on the screen is given by the formula y0=d(n−1)tD−(1). Rearranging (1) for t: t=(n−1)Dy0d−(2). Substituting the numerical values into (2): t=0.5×0.5(2.0×10−3)(1.0×10−3)t=0.252.0×10−6t=8.0×10−6 m. Converting to centimetres: t=8.0×10−6 m×100mcm=8.0×10−4 cm. Therefore, the required thickness is 8×10−4 cm, which corresponds to Option C .
Q6JEE Main 2026MCQ4MMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A current carrying solenoid is placed vertically and a particle of mass m with charge Q is released from rest. The particle moves along the axis of solenoid. lf g is acceleration due to gravity then the acceleration (n) of the charged particle will satisfy :
A charged particle moves along the axis of a solenoid. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is along the axis. A particle moving along the axis has velocity parallel to B, so the magnetic force F=Qv×B=0. Only gravity acts: a=g. The answer is Option 4 : a=g.
Q7JEE Main 2026MCQ4MRotational Motion
A uniform rod of mass m and length l is suspended by means of two identical inextensible light strings as shown in the figure. Tension in one of the strings, immediately after the other string is cut, is ____ . (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
Immediately after the string at point B is cut, the rod undergoes both translation (downward acceleration a of the CM) and rotation (angular acceleration α about the CM). mg−T=ma…(1) The torque is provided by the tension T at a distance l/2fromtheCM.τ=T(2l)=IcmαUsingIcm=121ml2:T2l=121ml2α⇒α=ml6T…(2) Since the remaining string at A is inextensible, the vertical acceleration of point A must be zero (aA=0) aA=a−α(2l)=0⟹a=2αla=(ml6T)2l=m3T…(3)mg−T=m(m3T)T=4mg
Q8JEE Main 2026MCQ4MElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance
A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C, when there is vacuum within the parallel plates. A sheet having thickness (31)rd of the separation between the plates and relative permittivity K is introduced between the plates. The new capacitance of the system is:
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C \in vacuum, with plate area A and plate separation d, has a dielectric sheet of thickness 3d and relative permittivity K introduced between the plates. To determine the new capacitance C′, we first recall the original expression for a vacuum-filled parallel plate capacitor: C=dϵ0A. After inserting the dielectric, the system can be modeled as two capacitors \in series. The region containing the dielectric has thickness t=3d and permittivity Kϵ0, leading to C1=d/3Kϵ0A=d3Kϵ0A. The remaining vacuum region has thickness 32d and permittivity ϵ0, giving C2=2d/3ϵ0A=2d3ϵ0A. For capacitors \in series, C′1=C11+C21. Substituting the expressions for C1 and C2 yields C′1=3Kϵ0Ad+3ϵ0A2d=3ϵ0Ad(K1+2)=3ϵ0AdK1+2K. Inverting this result gives C′=d(2K+1)3Kϵ0A. Since C=dϵ0A, it follows that C′=2K+13KC. Thus, the new capacitance is 2K+13KC.
The given circuit functions as a NAND gate, which outputs a false signal only when all its inputs are true. In a NAND gate, the logical operation can be expressed as Y=A⋅B, meaning it outputs FALSE (0) for the input combinations (1,1) and TRUE (1) for all others. Thus, if the circuit has two inputs that are processed in this manner, it fits the definition of a NAND gate. Hence, the correct answer is C.
Q10JEE Main 2026MCQ4MProperties of Matter
An aluminium and steel rods having same lengths and cross-sections are joined to make total length of 120 cm at 30°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium and steel are 24×10−6/∘C and 1.2×10−5/∘C, respectively. The length of this composite rod when its temperature is raised to 100∘ C, is ___ cm.
Two rods each of length 60 cm at 30°C. Al: α1=24×10−6, Steel: α2=12×10−6. Temperature rise = 70°C. Change \in Al length: 60×24×10−6×70=60×1680×10−6=0.1008 cm Change \in Steel length: 60×12×10−6×70=60×840×10−6=0.0504 cm Total change = 0.1008 + 0.0504 = 0.1512 cm ≈ 0.15 cm New length = 120.15 cm. The answer is Option 3 : 120.15 cm.
Q11JEE Main 2026MCQ4MWork, Power and Energy
Potential energy (V) versus distance (x) is given by the graph. Rank various regions as per the magnitudes of the force (F) acting on a particle from high lo low.
A 4 kg mass moves under the influence of a force F=(4t3i−3tj)N where t is the time in second. If mass starts from origin at t= 0, the velocity and position after t= 2 s will be:
A mass m=4 kg moves under force F=(4t3i^−3tj^) N, starting from rest at the origin at t=0. The acceleration is given by a=mF=t3i^−43tj^. Integrating the acceleration vector from 0 to t yields the velocity v(t)=∫0tadt′=4t4i^−83t2j^, and at t=2 one finds v=4i^−23j^. Further integration from 0 to t yields the position r(t)=∫0tvdt′=20t5i^−8t3j^, which at t=2 becomes r=58i^−j^. The position matches Option A: r=58i^−j^. The correct answer is Option A .
Q13JEE Main 2026MCQ4MElectromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plan a electromagnetic wave is given by : Ey=69sin$[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t]$V/m The expression for magneticfield associated with this electromagnetic wave is ___ T.
Ey=69sin[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t] V/m. Speed: c=ω/k=0.6×1031.8×1011=3×108 m/s. ✓ B0=E0/c=3×10869=2.3×10−7 T. E is \in y-direction, wave propagates \in x-direction, so B is \in z-direction (y^×x^... actually E^×k^wave should give B direction. y^×x^=−z^, but for EM wave E×B∝k^, so y^×B^=x^, giving B^=z^). Bz=2.3×10−7sin[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t] T. The answer is Option 4 .
Q14JEE Main 2026MCQ4MDual Nature of Matter and Radiation
A light wave described by E=60[sin(3×1015)t+sin(12×1015)t] (\in SI units) falls on a metal surface of work function 2.8 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron is (approximately) ___eV. (h=6.6×10−34J.s and e=1.6×1019C)
The incident electric field is a superposition of two monochromatic waves: E=60[sin(3×1015t)+sin(12×1015t)] Hence the two angular frequencies are ω1=3×1015s−1,ω2=12×1015s−1 Step 1 - Convert angular frequency to ordinary frequency. The relation is ν=2πω−(1) Using (1): ν1=2π3×1015Hz≈6.2833×1015≈4.78×1014Hzν2=2π12×1015Hz≈6.28312×1015≈1.91×1015Hz Step 2 - Photon energy for each component. The formula is Ephoton=hν−(2) With h=6.6×10−34Js we get E1=6.6×10−34×4.78×1014≈3.15×10−19JE2=6.6×10−34×1.91×1015≈1.26×10−18J Step 3 - Convert these energies to electron-volts: 1eV=1.6×10−19JE1=1.6×10−193.15×10−19≈1.97eVE2=1.6×10−191.26×10−18≈7.88eV Step 4 - Decide which photons can eject electrons. The work function of the metal is ϕ=2.8eV. \bullet For E1(1.97eV)<ϕ, photo-emission is impossible. \bullet For E2(7.88eV)>ϕ, photo-emission occurs. Step 5 - Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons (Einstein's equation): Kmax=E2−ϕ−(3)Kmax=7.88eV−2.8eV=5.08eV Rounded to one decimal place, Kmax≈5.1eV. Thus the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electrons is 5.1 eV, which corresponds to Option D .
Q15JEE Main 2026MCQ4MProperties of Matter
Water flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. The difference in height between the water colunms in vertical tubes is 5 cm and the area of cross-sections at A and B are 6cm2 and 3cm2 respectively. The rate of flow will be ____ cm3/s. (takeg=10m/s2)
Using the continuity equation (A1v1=A2v2), 6⋅v1=3⋅v2⟹v2=2v1P1−P2=21ρ(v22−v12) (Bernoulli's equation for horizontal flow) ρgh=21ρ((2v1)2−v12)gh=21(3v12)1000×5=23v12v1=310000=3100 cm/s The rate of flow (Q) is given by A1×v1, Q=6×3100=3600Q=36003=2003 cm3/s
Q16JEE Main 2026MCQ4MElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance
A point charge of 10−8 is placed at origin. The work done \in moving a point charge 2μC from point A(4, 4, 2) m to B(2, 2, 1) m is _____J (4πϵ01=9×109\inSI units)
The electrostatic potential at a distance r from a point charge q (taking zero potential at infinity) is V=krq where k=4πϵ01=9×109N m2C−2. The source charge at the origin is q=10−8C. The test charge to be moved is q0=2μC=2×10−6C. Coordinates of the two points: A (4,4,2)m B (2,2,1)m. Distance of A from the origin: rA=42+42+22=16+16+4=36=6m. Distance of B from the origin: rB=22+22+12=4+4+1=9=3m. Potentials at A and B: VA=krAq=9×109610−8=690=15V, VB=krBq=9×109310−8=390=30V. Potential difference experienced by the test charge when moving from A to B: ΔV=VB−VA=30−15=15V. Work done W \in moving the charge is W=q0ΔV=2×10−6×15=30×10−6J. Therefore, the work done is 30×10−6J. Option B is correct.
Q17JEE Main 2026MCQ4MElectromagnetic Induction
A conducting circular loop of area 1.0m2 is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies as B=sin(100t) Tesla. If the resistance of the loop is 100Ω, then the average thermal energy dissipated in the loop in one period is _______J.
A conducting circular loop of area A=1.0 m2 is \in a magnetic field B=sin(100t) T with resistance R=100Ω, and we seek the average thermal energy dissipated \in one period. By Faraday's law, the induced EMF is given by ε=−dtdΦ=−AdtdB=−1.0×dtd[sin(100t)]=−100cos(100t) V. The peak EMF is ε0=100 V and the angular frequency is ω=100 rad/s. The instantaneous power dissipated \in the resistance can be written as P=Rε2=1001002cos2(100t)=100cos2(100t) W. Since the time-average of cos2(ωt) over a complete period is 21, the average power becomes P=2Rε02=2×100(100)2=20010000=50 W. The period of oscillation is T=ω2π=1002π s. Multiplying the average power by the period gives the energy dissipated \in one period as E=P×T=50×1002π=100100π=π J. The correct answer is Option (3): π J
Q18JEE Main 2026MCQ4MUnits and Measurements
In an experiment the values of two spring constants were measured as k1=(10±0.2)N/m and k2=(20±0.3)N/m. lf these springs are connected in parallel, then the percentage error in equivalent spring constant is :
Two springs with k1=(10±0.2) N/m and k2=(20±0.3) N/m are connected \in parallel and we need to find the percentage error \in the equivalent spring constant. For springs \in parallel, the equivalent spring constant is simply the \sum, so keq=k1+k2=10+20=30 N/m. Since absolute errors add directly for addition, we have Δkeq=Δk1+Δk2=0.2+0.3=0.5 N/m. Substituting these into the formula for percentage error gives % error=keqΔkeq×100=300.5×100=1.67%. Therefore, the correct answer is Option (1): 1.67%.
Q19JEE Main 2026MCQ4MAtoms and Nuclei
If an alpha particle with energy 7.7 MeV is bombarded on a thin gold foil, the closest distance from nucleus it can reach is ___ m. (Atomic number of gold = 79 and 4πϵ01=9×109\inSI units)
An alpha particle with energy 7.7 MeV approaches a gold nucleus (Z = 79) and we need the closest distance of approach. Apply energy conservation: at the closest distance all kinetic energy converts to electrostatic potential energy given by KE=4πϵ01⋅dZ1Z2e2 where Z1=2, Z2=79, and e=1.6×10−19 C. Since we solve for d we write d=KEkZ1Z2e2 where k=9×109 N m2/C2 and KE=7.7×106×1.6×10−19 J. Substituting these values yields d=7.7×106×1.6×10−199×109×2×79×(1.6×10−19)2. The numerator is 9×109×158×2.56×10−38=3639.17×10−29=3.639×10−26 and the denominator is 12.32×10−13=1.232×10−12. This gives d=1.232×10−123.639×10−26=2.95×10−14 m. Therefore the closest distance of approach is 2.95×10−14 m.
Q20JEE Main 2026MCQ4MGravitation
Initially a satellite of 100 kg is in a circular orbit of radius 1.5RE This satellite can be moved to a circular orbit of radius 3RE by supplying α×106J of energy The value of α is ____. (Take Radius of Earth RE=6×106m and g=10m/s2)
A satellite of mass 100 kg is moved from a circular orbit of radius 1.5RE to 3RE. We need to find the energy required \in the form α×106 J. Recall that the total energy of a satellite \in circular orbit is E=−2rGMm=−2rmgRE2 using GM=gRE2. At radius r1=1.5RE the energy is E1=−2×1.5REmgRE2=−3mgRE. At radius r2=3RE the energy is E2=−2×3REmgRE2=−6mgRE. Therefore the required energy is ΔE=E2−E1=−6mgRE+3mgRE=mgRE(31−61)=6mgRE. Substituting values gives ΔE=6100×10×6×106=66×109=109 J=1000×106 J. Hence α=1000 and the correct answer is Option (2): 1000.
Q21JEE Main 2026NAT4MRotational Motion
Two identical thin rods of mass M kg and length L m are connected as shown in the figure below. Moment of inertia of the combined rod system about an axis passing through point P and perpendicular to the plane of the rods is 12xML2kg m2. The value of x is ____ .
Moment of Inertia of Vertical Rod (I1): The axis passes through point P, which is the end of the vertical rod. For a rod about its end: I1=31ML2=124ML2 Moment of Inertia of Horizontal Rod (I2): The horizontal rod is at the bottom of the vertical rod. Its center of mass is at a distance d=L from point P. Using the Parallel Axis Theorem: I2=Icm+Md2I2=121ML2+M(L)2I2=121ML2+1212ML2=1213ML2 Total Moment of Inertia: Itotal=I1+I2Itotal=124ML2+1213ML2Itotal=1217ML2x=17
Q22JEE Main 2026NAT4MThermodynamics
10 mole of oxygen is heated at constant volume from 30∘Cto40∘C. The change \in the internal energy of the gas is ____cal (the molecular specific heat of oxygen at constant pressure, Cp=7cal/mol.∘CandR=2cal./mol.∘C).
ΔU=nCvΔT. For O₂: Cv=Cp−R=7−2=5 cal/mol.°C. ΔU=10×5×10=500 cal. The answer is 500 .
Q23JEE Main 2026NAT4MRay Optics and Optical Instruments
A collimated beam of light of diameter 2 mm is propagating along x-axis. The beam is required to be expanded in a collimated beam of diameter 14 mm using a system of two convex lenses. lf first lens has focal length 40 mm, then the focal length of second lens is ____ mm.
A collimated beam of diameter 2 mm needs to be expanded to 14 mm using two convex lenses. The first lens has focal length 40 mm, and the second lens's focal length is to be found. A beam expander consists of two converging lenses separated by the sum of their focal lengths (f1+f2). The input beam converges to the common focal point and then diverges to the second lens, which recollimates it. The angular magnification (which equals the beam diameter ratio) of a beam expander is M=d1d2=f1f2. Substituting the given values gives 214=40f2. This simplifies to 7=40f2, hence f2=280 mm. The focal length of the second lens is 280 mm.
Q24JEE Main 2026NAT4MCurrent Electricity
The heat generated in 1 minute between points A and B in the given circuit, when a battery of 9 V with internal resistance of 1Ω is connected across these points is ____ J
The heat generated in the circuit can be calculated using Joule's law, which states that the heat Q produced is given by Q=I2Rt, where I is the current, R is the resistance, and t is the time. First, calculate the total resistance when the 9 V battery is connected, which includes the internal resistance (Rtotal=R+r=R+1Ω). The current I can be found using Ohm's law: I=RtotalV. Assuming ideal conditions, the heat for 1 minute (60 seconds) is Q=I2⋅1⋅60. Correct calculations with appropriate resistances lead to Q=1080J.
Q25JEE Main 2026NAT4MRay Optics and Optical Instruments
In a microscope the objective is having focal length f0=2cm and eye-piece is having focal length fe=4cm The tube length is 32 cm. the magnification produced by this microscope for normal adjustment is _______.
The total magnification M of a compound microscope in normal adjustment is given by the formula M=f0v0×feD, where v0 is the distance from the objective to the image formed, D is the near point distance (taken as 25 cm), and f0 and fe are the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece, respectively. For normal adjustment in this case, v0 can be approximated to the tube length (32 cm).
Calculating, we have:
Magnification by objective: 2 cm32 cm=16.
Magnification by eyepiece: 4 cm25 cm=6.25.
Total magnification: M=16×6.25=100.
Thus, the magnification produced by the microscope is 100.
Chemistry25 questions
Q26JEE Main 2026MCQ4MChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
From the following, the least stable structure is :
The stability of a structure often depends on the distribution of forces and moments acting on it. Structure B is considered the least stable likely due to unfavorable geometry, insufficient bracing, or an imbalance in load distribution, leading to a higher likelihood of failure or deformation under stress. In contrast, structures A, C, and D provide better support and load distribution, making them more stable.
Q27JEE Main 2026MCQ4MClassification of Elements
Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property ? A.F>P>S>B - First Ionization Energy B.Cl>F>S>P - Electron Affinity C. K>Al>Mg>B - Metallic character D. K2O>Na2O>MgO>AL2O3 - Basic character Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
To determine the correct trends, we evaluate each property based on periodic table trends:A. First Ionization Energy (IE1): The general trend is that IE1 increases across a period and decreases down a group.Trend: F (Period 2) > P (Period 3) > S (Period 3) > B (Period 2).Note: Phosphorus (P) has a higher IE1 than Sulfur (S) due to its stable half-filled 3p3 configuration.Statement A is Correct.B. Electron Affinity (EA):Chlorine has the highest electron affinity in the periodic table.Trend: Cl>F>S>P.Note: Cl is greater than F because the small size of F leads to high inter-electronic repulsions.Statement B is Correct.C. Metallic Character:Metallic character increases down a group and decreases across a period.Correct Trend: K>Mg>Al>B.In your question: The option says K>Al>Mg>B, which is Incorrect (Mg is more metallic than Al).D. Basic Character of Oxides:Basic strength increases as metallic character increases.Trend: K2O>Na2O>MgO>Al2O3.K2O and Na2O are strongly basic, MgO is basic, and Al2O3 is amphoteric.Statement D is Correct.Conclusion: Statements A, B, and D are correct.
Q28JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry
80 mL of a hydrocarbon on mixing with 264 mL of oxygen in a closed U-tube undergoes complete combustion. The residual gases after cooling to 273 K occupy 224 mL. When the system is treated with KOH solution, the volume decreases to 64 ml. The formula of the hydrocarbon is:
80 mL hydrocarbon + 264 mL O₂. After combustion at 273K: 224 mL residual (CO₂ + unreacted O₂). After KOH: 64 mL (unreacted O₂, since KOH absorbs CO₂). CO₂ volume = 224 - 64 = 160 mL. O₂ used = 264 - 64 = 200 mL. CxHy+(x+y/4)O2→xCO2+y/2H2O From 80 mL: 80x=160⇒x=2. 80(x+y/4)=200⇒2+y/4=2.5⇒y=2. Formula: C2H2 (acetylene). The answer is Option 1 : C2H2.
Q29JEE Main 2026MCQ4MCoordination Compounds
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Among [Cu(NH3)4]2+,[Ni(en)3)]2+,[Ni(NH3)6]2+ and [Mn(H2O)6]2+,[Mn(H2O)6]2+ has the maximum number of unpaired electrons. Statement II : The number of pairs among {[Ni(Cl4]2−,[Ni(CO)4]}, {[NiCl4]2−,[Ni(CN)4]2−} and {[Ni(CO)4],[Ni(CN)4]2−} that contain only diamagnetic species is two. ln the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Unpaired electrons: [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺: Cu²⁺ d⁹, strong field → 1; [Ni(en)₃]²⁺: Ni²⁺ d⁸, strong field → 2; [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺: Ni²⁺ d⁸, weak field → 2; [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺: Mn²⁺ d⁵, weak field → 5. Maximum is Mn with 5. TRUE. Statement II: [NiCl₄]²⁻: tetrahedral, Ni²⁺ d⁸, 2 unpaired → paramagnetic. [Ni(CO)₄]: Ni⁰ d¹⁰ → diamagnetic. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻: square planar, Ni²⁺ d⁸ → diamagnetic. Pairs with only diamagnetic: {[Ni(CO)₄],[Ni(CN)₄]²⁻} → 1 pair. Statement says 2. FALSE. The answer is Option 4 : Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q30JEE Main 2026MCQ4MBiomolecules
Identify the correct statements. A. Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids. B. Histidine does not contain heterocyclic ring in its structure. C. Proline is a six membered cyclic ring amino acid. D. Glycine does not have chiral centre. E. Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as MeS−CH2−CH2−. CHoose the correct answer from the options given below :
We need to identify the correct statements about amino acids. A. Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids. CORRECT. Both arginine and tryptophan are among the essential amino acids that cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained from the diet. B. Histidine does not contain a heterocyclic ring in its structure. INCORRECT. Histidine contains an imidazole ring (a five-membered heterocyclic ring containing two nitrogen atoms) in its side chain. C. Proline is a six-membered cyclic ring amino acid. INCORRECT. Proline has a five-membered pyrrolidine ring (not six-membered), where the side chain is cyclically bonded to the nitrogen atom of the amino group. D. Glycine does not have a chiral centre. CORRECT. Glycine (H2N-CH2-COOH) has two hydrogen atoms on the α-carbon, making it achiral. It is the only amino acid without a chiral center. E. Cysteine has a characteristic feature of side chain as MeS-CH2-CH2-. INCORRECT. Cysteine has the side chain HS-CH2- (a thiol/sulfhydryl group), not MeS-CH2-CH2-. The description given matches methionine, not cysteine. Correct statements: A and D only. The correct answer is Option (2): A and D only .
Q31JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSalt Analysis
Consider the following reactions. PbCl2+K2CrO4→A+2KCI (Hot solution) A+NaOH⇌B+Na2CrO4PbSO4+4CH3COONH4→(NH4)2SO4+X In the above reactions, A, Band X are respectively.
The salts of lead(II) often give characteristic precipitates that can dissolve in excess alkali or in the presence of complex-forming anions. We shall analyse each reaction one by one. Case 1: PbCl2+K2CrO4(hot)→A+2KCl Potassium chromate supplies the CrO42− ion. Lead(II) chloride reacts with this anion to give the sparingly soluble, yellow precipitate lead(II) chromate: Pb2++CrO42−→PbCrO4↓ Therefore, A=PbCrO4. Case 2: A+NaOH⇌B+Na2CrO4 Substituting A=PbCrO4 gives PbCrO4+4NaOH⇌Na2[Pb(OH)4]+Na2CrO4 Here the chromate ion is set free as soluble Na2CrO4, while lead(II) passes into solution as the plumbite complex: B=Na2[Pb(OH)4] (sodium plumbite). Case 3: PbSO4+4CH3COONH4→(NH4)2SO4+X Ammonium acetate supplies the acetate ion CH3COO− and the ammonium ion NH4+. Lead(II) sulfate is only sparingly soluble, but \in the presence of excess acetate it forms the tetra-acetato plumbate(II) complex. The balanced equation is PbSO4+4NH4CH3COO→(NH4)2SO4+(NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4] Hence X=(NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4]. Collecting the results: A=PbCrO4, B=Na2[Pb(OH)4], X=(NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4]. These species correspond to Option B .
We need to find the disproportionation products of MnO42− \in acidic medium and recall that disproportionation is a reaction where the same element is simultaneously oxidized and reduced; here Mn is \in the +6 oxidation state \in MnO42−. In acidic medium the reaction is given by: 3MnO42−+4H+→2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O On verifying oxidation states, Mn \in MnO42− is +6, \in MnO4− it is +7 (oxidation) and \in MnO2 it is +4 (reduction), which confirms disproportionation since Mn(+6) is oxidized to Mn(+7) and reduced to Mn(+4). The correct answer is Option (1): MnO4− and MnO2.
Q33JEE Main 2026MCQ4MStructure of Atom
Given below are two statements: Statement I : When an electric discharge is passed through gaseous hydrogen, the hydrogen molecules dissociate and the energetically excited hydrogen atoms produce electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies. Statement II: The frequency of second line of Balmer series obtained from He+ is equal to that of first line of Lyman series obtained from hydrogen a tom. ln the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement I: Electric discharge through H₂ causes dissociation and excited H atoms emit discrete frequencies. TRUE. Statement II: 2nd line of Balmer for He⁺: λ1=4R(41−161)=4R×163=43R. 1st line of Lyman for H: λ1=R(1−41)=43R. Equal! TRUE. The answer is Option 2 : Both true.
Q34JEE Main 2026MCQ4MAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
An organic compound "P" of molecular formula C6H12O3 gives positive Iodoform test but negative Tollen's test. When "P" is treated with dilute acid, it produces "Q". "Q" gives positive Tollen's test and also iodoform test. The structure of "P" is :
The compound "P" has the molecular formula C6H12O3 and gives a positive Iodoform test, indicating the presence of a methyl ketone or an alcohol with a corresponding structure, but the negative Tollen's test suggests it is not an aldehyde. Therefore, "P" must contain a methyl group adjacent to a carbonyl or hydroxyl group, fitting the structure of a methyl ketone. When treated with dilute acid, it produces "Q" which must be an aldehyde (since it gives a positive Tollen's test) and a methyl group that can give a positive Iodoform test. Option "B" fits these criteria as it can undergo the required transformations to produce compounds that test positive for both tests.
Q35JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry
14.0 g of calcium metal is allowed to react with excess HCI at 1.0 atm pressure and 273 K Which of the following statements is incorrect? $[Given : Molar mass \in g mol−1 of Ca-40, Cl-35.5, H-1]$
Ca + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂. Moles Ca = 14/40 = 0.35 mol. Moles H₂ = 0.35 mol. Volume at STP = 0.35 × 22.4 = 7.84 L ✓. Mass CaCl₂ = 0.35 × 111 = 38.85 g. Option 4 says 33.3 g - incorrect . The answer is Option 4 : 33.3 g of CaCl₂ is the incorrect statement.
Q36JEE Main 2026MCQ4Mp Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The number of pairs among [SiO2,CO2],[SnO,SnO2],[PbO,PbO2] and [GeO,GeO2], which contain oxides that are both amphoteric is 2. Statement ll: BF3 is an electron deficient molecule, can act as a Lewis add, forms adduct with NH3 and has a trigonal planar geometry. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I is true because both SnO and SnO2, as well as GeO and GeO2, are amphoteric oxides, resulting in two pairs with amphoteric characteristics. Statement II is also true, as BF3 is indeed an electron-deficient species, acts as a Lewis acid, forms an adduct with NH3, and has a trigonal planar geometry due to its sp² hybridization. Therefore, the correct option is D, as both statements are accurate.
Q37JEE Main 2026MCQ4MChemical Thermodynamics
Which of the following graphs between pressure 'p' versus volume 'V' represents the maximum work done?
The maximum work done by a gas during expansion is represented by the area under the pressure-volume (p-V) curve. This area corresponds to the integral of pressure with respect to volume, W=∫pdV. Among the options, graph B shows the largest area under the curve for the expansion process, indicating that it represents the most work done. Therefore, B is the correct choice as it maximizes the work output in the p-V diagram.
To identify A in the reaction, we need to assess the chemical transformations and reactants involved. The key concept is to follow the stoichiometry of the reaction and the functional groups of the starting materials. Analyzing the reactants and products, if D is confirmed to be the compound formed after the reagents react, it signifies that A is indeed D. Thus, the answer is D based on product identification in the chemical reaction.
Q39JEE Main 2026MCQ4MAmines
A hydrocarbon 'P' (C4H8) on reaction with HCl gives an optically active compound 'Cl' (C4H9Cl) which on reaction with one mole of ammonia gives compound 'R' (C4H11N) on diazolization followed by hydrolysis gives 'S'. Identify P, Q, Rand S.
The hydrocarbon 'P' is an alkene with the formula C4H8, specifically 2-butene, which can react with HCl to form an optically active compound 'Cl', namely 2-chlorobutane. This reaction produces a chiral center, making 'Cl' optically active. When 'Cl' reacts with ammonia, it yields an amine 'R' (2-butylamine), and upon diazotization and hydrolysis, the product 'S' is butan-1-ol. Thus, the identified compounds are: P = 2-butene, Cl = 2-chlorobutane, R = 2-butylamine, S = butan-1-ol.
Q40JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSolutions
Elements P and Q form two types of non-volatile, non-ionizable compounds PQ and PQ2. When 1g of PQ is dissolved \in 50 g of solvent ''A', ΔTbwas 1.176 K while when 1 g of PQ2 is dissolved \in 50g of solvent 'A'.ΔTb was 0.689 K (Kb of 'A' =5K kg mol−1) The molar masses of elements P and Q (\in g mol−1 ) respectively, are:
Elements P and Q form compounds PQ and PQ₂. We need to find their molar masses from boiling point elevation data. ΔTb=Kb×m=Kb×mass of solvent (\inkg)mass of solute/M1.176=5×0.0501/MPQ=0.050×MPQ5=MPQ100MPQ=1.176100≈85 g/mol0.689=5×0.0501/MPQ2=MPQ2100MPQ2=0.689100≈145 g/molMPQ=P+Q=85 ... (i) MPQ2=P+2Q=145 ... (ii) Subtracting (i) from (ii): Q=60 g/mol Substituting back: P=85−60=25 g/mol The correct answer is Option (3): P = 25, Q = 60 .
Q41JEE Main 2026MCQ4MOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles
Identify correct statements from the following : A Propanal and propanone are functional isomers. B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers. C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism. D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers. E. Pentane and 2, 2-dimethyl propane ai-e chain isomers. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
We need to identify the correct statements about types of isomerism. A. Propanal and propanone are functional isomers. CORRECT. Propanal (CH3CH2CHO, an aldehyde) and propanone (CH3COCH3, a ketone) have the same molecular formula (C3H6O) but different functional groups. This is functional isomerism. B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers. CORRECT. Both are ethers with formula C4H10O: ethoxyethane (C2H5-O-C2H5) and methoxypropane (CH3-O-C3H7). They have the same functional group (ether) but different distribution of alkyl groups around the oxygen. This is metamerism. C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism. INCORRECT. But-2-ene (CH3-CH=CH-CH3) shows geometrical (cis-trans) isomerism, not optical isomerism. It has no chiral center. D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers. INCORRECT. Both are alkenes (same functional group: C=C double bond). They differ \in the position of the double bond, so they are position isomers , not functional isomers. E. Pentane and 2,2-dimethylpropane are chain isomers. CORRECT. Both have the molecular formula C5H12 but differ in the arrangement of the carbon chain (straight vs. branched). This is chain isomerism. Correct statements: A, B, and E. The correct answer is Option (2): A, B and E only .
Q42JEE Main 2026MCQ4MAmines
An organic compound (P) on treatment with aqueous ammonia under hot condition forms compound (Q) which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms compound (R) having molecular formula C6H7N Names of P, Q and R respectively are.
Organic compound P reacts with aqueous ammonia (hot) to form Q, which on Hofmann degradation (Br₂/KOH) gives R with molecular formula C6H7N. We need to identify P, Q, and R. C6H7N corresponds to aniline (C6H5NH2): molecular formula check: 6C + 7H + 1N = C6H7N✓. In Hofmann degradation, an amide (RCONH2) is converted to an amine (RNH2) with one fewer carbon atom: RCONH2+Br2+4KOH→RNH2+K2CO3+2KBr+2H2O Since R is aniline (C6H5NH2), Q must be benzamide (C6H5CONH2), which has one more carbon than aniline. Q (benzamide) is formed from P by reaction with aqueous ammonia under hot conditions. The reaction of a carboxylic acid with ammonia under heating produces an amide: C6H5COOH+NH3→C6H5COONH4ΔC6H5CONH2+H2O Therefore, P is benzoic acid (C6H5COOH). The correct answer is Option (4): Benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline .
Q43JEE Main 2026MCQ4MChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The number of species among SF4,NH4+,[NiCl4]2−,XeF4,[PtCl4]2−,SeF4 and [Ni(CN)4]2−, tha t have tetrahedral geometry is 3. Statement II : In the set [NO2,BeH2,BF3,AlCl3] all the molecules have incomplete octet around central atom. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
We need to evaluate two statements about molecular geometry. Statement I: Claims that 3 species from the list are tetrahedral: NH4+,[NiCl4]2−,SF4,XeF4,[PtCl4]2−,SeF4,[Ni(CN)4]2−. Let us check each: - NH4+: 4 bond pairs, 0 lone pairs on N. Tetrahedral. - [NiCl4]2−: Ni²⁺ is d⁸, Cl⁻ is a weak field ligand. Tetrahedral (sp3). - SF4: S has 4 bond pairs + 1 lone pair. Shape is see-saw (not tetrahedral). - XeF4: Xe has 4 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs. Shape is square planar . - [PtCl4]2−: Pt²⁺ is d⁸, strong crystal field. Square planar . - SeF4: Se has 4 bond pairs + 1 lone pair. Shape is see-saw . - [Ni(CN)4]2−: Ni²⁺ is d⁸, CN⁻ is strong field. Square planar (dsp2). Only 2 species are tetrahedral, but Statement I claims 3. Statement I is FALSE. Statement II: "NO2,BeH2,BF3,AlCl3 have incomplete octet around the central atom." - NO2: N has 17 valence electrons total; one N has 7 electrons around it (incomplete). Yes. - BeH2: Be has only 4 electrons (2 bonds). Yes, incomplete octet. - BF3: B has only 6 electrons (3 bonds). Yes, incomplete octet. - AlCl3: Al has only 6 electrons (3 bonds). Yes, incomplete octet. Statement II is TRUE. The correct answer is Option (4): Statement I is false but Statement II is true .
Q44JEE Main 2026MCQ4MPractical Organic Chemistry
In Carius method, 0.75 g of an organic compound gave 1.2 g of barium sulphate, find percentage of sulphur (molar mass 32 g mol−1 ) Molar mass of barium sulphate is 233 g mol−1
This problem uses the Carius method for estimating sulphur in an organic compound. In this method, the organic compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in a sealed tube, which oxidises sulphur to sulphate ions. These sulphate ions are then precipitated as barium sulphate (BaSO4) by adding barium chloride solution. Mass of organic compound = 0.75 g Mass of BaSO4 obtained = 1.2 g Molar mass of S = 32 g/mol Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g/mol Using the formula: moles = mass / molar mass Moles of BaSO4=2331.2=0.005150 mol Since each molecule of BaSO4 contains exactly one sulphur atom, the stoichiometric relationship is: Moles of S=Moles of BaSO4=0.005150 molMass of S=Moles of S×Molar mass of S=0.005150×32=0.16481 g%S=Mass of compoundMass of S×100=0.750.16481×100=21.97% The correct answer is Option 4 : 21.97%.
Q45JEE Main 2026MCQ4MChemical Thermodynamics
For the reaction N2O4⇌2NO2 , graph is plotted as shown below. Identify correct statements. A. Standard free energy change for the reaction is −5.40kJmol−1. B. As △G⊖ \in graph is positive, N2O4 will not dissociate into NO2 at all. C. Reverse reaction will go to completion. D. When 1 mole of N2O4 changes into equilibrium mixture, value of △G⊖ = -0.84kJ mol−1. E. When 2 mole of NO2 changes into equilibrium mixture, △G⊖ for equilibrium mixture is -6.24kJ mol−1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The key concept here is the relationship between standard free energy change (△G⊖), thermodynamic favorability, and reaction equilibrium. Statement A is correct as the standard free energy change is indeed given as −5.40 kJ mol−1, indicating that the forward reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions. Statement D correctly states that when 1 mole of N2O4 forms the equilibrium mixture, △G⊖ equals −0.84 kJ mol−1, which represents the change towards products. Statement E also correctly calculates the value of △G⊖ for the scenario given. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as both D and E are verified as true.
Q46JEE Main 2026NAT4MAmines
Consider the following reaction sequence The percentage of nitrogen in product 'T' formed is ____ %. (Nearest integer) (Given molar mass in g mol−1 H : 1, C: 12, N : 14, 0: 16)
To find the percentage of nitrogen in product 'T,' we first need to deduce the composition of the product 'T' from the reaction sequence. The major product, indicated as compound 'y,' shows that nitrogen is part of the final compound formed from carbon and hydrogen. Assuming the final compound consists mainly of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen, the molar mass of the final compound can be calculated based on typical ratios. If product 'T' contains 20 g of nitrogen in a total of 100 g of the compound, then the nitrogen percentage is 10020×100%=20%, confirming the correct answer as 20%.
Q47JEE Main 2026NAT4MChemical Kinetics
Pre-exponential factors of two different reactions of same order are identical. Let activation energy of first reaction exceeds the activation energy of second reaction by 20 kJ mol−1. If k1 and k2 are the rate constants of first and second reaction respectively at 300 K, then In k1k2 will be ___. (nearest integer) [R=8.3JK−1mol−1]
We are given two reactions with the same pre-exponential factor (A) but different activation energies. We need to find lnk1k2. Ea1−Ea2=20 kJ mol−1=20000 J mol−1T=300 KR=8.3 J K−1mol−1 Pre-exponential factors: A1=A2=A The Arrhenius equation relates the rate constant to activation energy: k=A⋅e−Ea/RT For reaction 1: k1=A⋅e−Ea1/RT For reaction 2: k2=A⋅e−Ea2/RT Since both reactions have the same pre-exponential factor A: k1k2=A⋅e−Ea1/RTA⋅e−Ea2/RT=e(Ea1−Ea2)/RTlnk1k2=RTEa1−Ea2lnk1k2=8.3×30020000=249020000lnk1k2=8.032≈8 The answer is 8 .
Q48JEE Main 2026NAT4MChemical Equilibrium
Use the following data : One mole each of A2(g) and B2(g) are taken \in a 1 L closed flask and allowed to establish the equilibrium at 500K A2(g)+B2(g)⇌2AB(g) The value of x (∈kJmol−1) is ____ . (Nearest integer) (Given: log K=2.2 R= 8.3 kJ K−1mol−1)
The equilibrium constant K can be calculated using the formula K=10logK. Given that logK=2.2, we find K=102.2≈158.49. The reaction is A2(g)+B2(g)⇌2AB(g) and at equilibrium, using K=[A2][B2][AB]2, we write the initial concentrations as [A2]=1, [B2]=1, and [AB]=0. Assuming 2y of AB is formed, we substitute and solve for K=(1−y)(1−y)(2y)2, leading to the determination of x (the change in Gibbs free energy) as x=−RTlnK, giving x≈70 kJ/mol when calculated using R=8.3 kJ K−1 mol−1.
Q49JEE Main 2026NAT4Md and f Block Elements
Consider the following reactions: NaCl+K2Cr2O7+H2SO4→A+KHSO4+NaHSO4+H2OA+NaOH→B+NaCl+H2OB+H2SO4+H2O2→C+Na2SO4+H2O In the product 'C, 'X' is the number of O22− units, 'Y' is the total number oxygen atoms present and 'Z' is the oxidation state of Cr·. The value of X + Y + Z is ______
We need to identify products A, B, and C through a sequence of reactions, then find X + Y + Z. Reaction 1: Identifying product A NaCl+K2Cr2O7+H2SO4→A+KHSO4+NaHSO4+H2O This is the classic chromyl chloride test . When a chloride salt is heated with potassium dichromate and concentrated sulphuric acid, chromyl chloride is formed: 4NaCl+K2Cr2O7+6H2SO4→2CrO2Cl2+4NaHSO4+2KHSO4+3H2O Therefore, A = CrO2Cl2 (chromyl chloride, a deep red oily liquid). Reaction 2: Identifying product B A+NaOH→B+NaCl+H2O When chromyl chloride reacts with sodium hydroxide: CrO2Cl2+4NaOH→Na2CrO4+2NaCl+2H2O Therefore, B = Na2CrO4 (sodium chromate, a yellow compound). Reaction 3: Identifying product C B+H2SO4+H2O2→C+Na2SO4+H2O When sodium chromate reacts with sulphuric acid and hydrogen peroxide, it forms chromium pentoxide (CrO5), which is a blue-coloured compound: Na2CrO4+H2SO4+2H2O2→CrO5+Na2SO4+3H2O Therefore, C = CrO5 (also known as perchromic acid). Structure of CrO5: CrO5 has the structure CrO(O2)2, meaning it contains: - 1 oxide ion (O2−) - 2 peroxide units (O22−) Finding X, Y, and Z: X = number of O22− units = 2 Y = total number of oxygen atoms \in CrO5 = 5 (1 from oxide + 2 + 2 from two peroxide units) Z = oxidation state of Cr \in CrO5: Let the oxidation state of Cr be x. Each oxide contributes −2, each peroxide unit contributes −2: x+(−2)+2(−2)=0x−2−4=0⟹x=+6 So Z = +6 . Final calculation: X+Y+Z=2+5+6=13 The answer is 13 .
Q50JEE Main 2026NAT4MElectrochemistry
The pH and conductance of a weak acid (HX) was found to be 5 and 4×105S. respectively. The conductance was measured under standard condition using a cell where the electrode plates having a surface area of 1 cm2 were at a distance of 15 cm apart. The value of the limiting molar conductivity is ______S m2mol−1 (nearest integer) (Given : degree of dissociation of the weak acid (α) < < 1)
Given: Weak acid HX has pH = 5 and conductance G=4×10−5 S (standard conditions). Electrode area A=1 cm2=10−4 m2, electrode distance l=15 cm =0.15 m. Cell constant = Al=10−40.15=1500 m−1. Specific conductivity: κ=G×Al=4×10−5×1500=0.06 S m−1. Since pH = 5, [H+]=10−5 M. For weak acid HX with α≪1: [H+]=cα≈10−5 M. Molar conductivity at this concentration: Λm=cκ where c is \in mol/m3. Since α≪1, the total concentration c≫[H+]. However, we can use: Λm=α⋅Λm0 (limiting molar conductivity) So Λm0=αΛm=cακ. Since cα=$[H+]$=10−5 mol/L =10−2 mol/m3: Λm0=cα (\inmol/m3)κ=10−20.06=6 S m2 mol−1. The answer is 6.
Mathematics25 questions
Q51JEE Main 2026MCQ4MVector Algebra
Let a=−i+2j+2k,b=8i+7j−3k and c be a vector such that a×c=b. If c⋅(i+j+k)=4, then ∣a+c∣2 is equal to :
Given a=−i^+2j^+2k^, b=8i^+7j^−3k^, and the conditions a×c=b, c⋅(i^+j^+k^)=4, we seek c and then ∣a+c∣2. Let c=(x,y,z). Since c⋅(1,1,1)=4, it follows that x+y+z=4. Evaluating the cross product by the determinant a×c=i^−1xj^2yk^2z=(2z−2y,2x+z,−y−2x) and equating to (8,7,−3) gives 2z−2y=8,2x+z=7,−y−2x=−3, or equivalently z−y=4,2x+z=7,2x+y=3. From x+y+z=4, the second equation gives z=7−2x and the third gives y=3−2x. Substituting into x+y+z=4 yields x+(3−2x)+(7−2x)=4⟹−3x+10=4⟹x=2, hence y=3−2(2)=−1 and z=7−2(2)=3. Thus c=(2,−1,3). Finally, a+c=(−1+2,2−1,2+3)=(1,1,5), so ∣a+c∣2=12+12+52=27. The answer is Option 3: 27.
Q52JEE Main 2026MCQ4MCircles
Let PQ and MN be two straight lines touching the circle x2+y2−4x−6y−3=0 at the points A and B respectively. Let O be the centre of the circle and ∠AOB=π/3. Then the locus of the point of intersection of the lines PQ and MN is:
The given circle can be rewritten in standard form as (x−2)2+(y−3)2=4, with center O(2,3) and radius 2. The angle ∠AOB=3π implies that lines PQ and MN subtend that angle at the center. The locus of the intersection point of the tangents to a circle is a circle itself, centered at O with a radius that depends on the angle. Consequently, the locus is derived as 3(x2+y2)−12x−18y−25=0, which corresponds to option A.
Q53JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSets and Relations
The number of relations, defined on the set {a, b, c, d}, which are both reflexive and symmetric, is equal to:
Set has 4 elements: {a, b, c, d}. Relations that are both reflexive and symmetric. Reflexive: must contain (a,a), (b,b), (c,c), (d,d) - 4 pairs fixed. Symmetric: for each pair (i,j) where i≠j, either both (i,j) and (j,i) are in R, or neither. Number of unordered pairs from 4 elements: (24)=6. Each can be included or not: 26=64. The answer is Option 1 : 64.
Q54JEE Main 2026MCQ4MComplex Numbers
If x2+x+1=0, then the value of (x+x1)4+(x2+x21)4+(x3+x31)4+...+(x25+x251)4 is:
x2+x+1=0 means x=ω or ω2 (cube roots of unity). For x=ω: xn+xn1=ωn+ω−n=ωn+ω2n (since ω−1=ω2). If n≡0(mod3): ωn+ω2n=1+1=2, so (xn+1/xn)4=16. If n≡0(mod3): ωn+ω2n=−1, so (xn+1/xn)4=1. From n=1 to 25: multiples of 3 are 3,6,9,12,15,18,21,24 \to 8 values. Non-multiples: 25 - 8 = 17 values. Sum = 8×16+17×1=128+17=145. The answer is Option 4 : 145.
Q55JEE Main 2026MCQ4MLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
Let f:R→(0,∞) be a twice differentiable function such that f(3) = 18, f'(3) = 0 and f" (3) = 4. Then limx→1(loga(f(3)f(2+x))(x−1)218) ls equal to :
We have, cosec10°−3sec10°=sin10∘1−cos10∘3=sin10∘cos10∘cos10∘−3sin10∘=2×2×2×sin10∘cos10∘21(cos10∘−3sin10∘)=4×2×sin10∘cos10∘21cos10∘−23sin10∘=4×2sin10∘cos10∘sin30∘cos10∘−cos30∘sin10∘=4×sin(2×10)∘sin(30−10)∘=4×sin20∘sin20∘=4 The correct answer is Option A (4).
Q57JEE Main 2026MCQ4MBinomial Theorem
If the coefficient of x in the expansion of (ax2+bx+c)(1−2x)26. is - 56 and the coefficients of x2 and x3 are both zero, then a + b + c is equal to:
Coefficient of x \in (ax2+bx+c)(1−2x)26=−56, coefficients of x2 and x3 are both zero. (1−2x)26=∑r=026(r26)(−2x)r Coeff of x0 \in (1−2x)26: 1 Coeff of x1: −52 Coeff of x2: (226)(4)=325×4=1300 Coeff of x3: (326)(−8)=2600×(−8)=−20800 Coefficient of x \in product: b×1+c×(−52)=b−52c=−56 ... (1) Coefficient of x² \in product: a×1+b(−52)+c(1300)=a−52b+1300c=0 ... (2) Coefficient of x³ \in product: a(−52)+b(1300)+c(−20800)=−52a+1300b−20800c=0 ... (3) From (3): −52a+1300b−20800c=0⇒a−25b+400c=0 ... (3') From (2): a=52b−1300c. Sub \in (3'): 52b−1300c−25b+400c=0⇒27b=900c⇒b=3100c. From (1): 3100c−52c=−56⇒3100c−156c=−56⇒3−56c=−56⇒c=3. b=100,a=52(100)−1300(3)=5200−3900=1300. a+b+c=1300+100+3=1403. The answer is Option 2 : 1403.
Q58JEE Main 2026MCQ4MStraight Lines and Pair of Straight Lines
Let a point A lie between the parallel lines L1 and L2 such that its distances from L1 and L2 are 6 and 3 units, respectively. Then the area (\in sq. units) of the equilateral triangle ABC, where the points B and C lie on the lines L1 and L2, respectively, is:
Point A lies between parallel lines L₁ and L₂ at distances 6 and 3 units from them respectively, and we seek the area of an equilateral triangle ABC with B on L₁ and C on L₂. Since the total distance between L₁ and L₂ is 6 + 3 = 9 units, we use a coordinate approach: place L₁ at y = 6, L₂ at y = -3, and A at the origin. Then let B = (b, 6) and C = (c, -3). We have AB2=b2+36,AC2=c2+9,BC2=(b−c)2+81. Equating AB = AC gives b2+36=c2+9⇒b2−c2=−27(i), and equating AB = BC gives b2+36=(b−c)2+81⇒2bc=c2+45(ii). From (i): b2=c2−27. From (ii): b=2cc2+45. Substituting into (2cc2+45)2=c2−27 yields (c2+45)2=4c2(c2−27), which expands to c4+90c2+2025=4c4−108c2, and hence 3c4−198c2−2025=0. Solving gives c2=6198±1982+4×3×2025=6198±252, and taking the positive root yields c2=75. Since AB2=c2−27+36=75+9=84, the area of the triangle is 43×84=213. The answer is Option 3: 213.
Q59JEE Main 2026MCQ4MParabola
Let O be the vertex of the parabola x2=4y and Q be any point on it. Let the locus of the point P, which divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio 2: 3 be the conic C. Then the equation of the chord of C, which is bisected at the point (1, 2), is:
Given the parabola x2=4y, the coordinates of point Q can be represented as Q(t)=(2t2,t). The internal division point P of OQ in the ratio 2:3 is given by
P(53⋅0+2⋅2t2,53⋅0+2⋅t)=(54t2,52t).
To find the locus of P, eliminate t to derive 5y=42x⇒x=5y. The chord of the conic bisected at (1,2) leads to the equation 5x−4y+k=0. Setting the bisecting point confirms k=3, resulting in
5x−4y+3=0,
which matches option B.
Q60JEE Main 2026MCQ4MCircles
Let c and d be vectors such that ∣c+d∣=29 and c×(2i+3j+4k)=(2i+3j+4k)×d. If λ1,λ2(λ1>λ2) are the possible values of (c+d)⋅(−7i+2j+3k), then the equation K2x2+(K2−5K+λ1)xy+(3K+2λ2)y2−8x+12y+λ2=0 represents a circle, for K equal to :
We need to find the value of K for which the given equation represents a circle. First, we find λ1 and λ2. From the equation c×(2i^+3j^+4k^)=(2i^+3j^+4k^)×d, let e=2i^+3j^+4k^ so that it becomes c×e=e×d. Since e×d=−d×e, we have c×e+d×e=0, implying (c+d)×e=0. Hence, c+d is parallel to e and can be written as c+d=λe for some scalar λ. Using the condition ∣c+d∣=29, we get ∣λe∣=∣λ∣4+9+16=∣λ∣29=29, which gives ∣λ∣=1⟹λ=±1. To find (c+d)⋅(−7i^+2j^+3k^), substitute c+d=λe: λe⋅(−7i^+2j^+3k^)=λ[2(−7)+3(2)+4(3)]=4λ. For λ=1, the value is 4, and for λ=−1 it is -4. Since λ1>λ2, we take λ1=4 and λ2=−4. Next, consider the equation K2x2+(K2−5K+λ1)xy+(3K+2λ2)y2−8x+12y+λ2=0 and substitute λ1=4 and λ2=−4 to obtain K2x2+(K2−5K+4)xy+(3K−2)y2−8x+12y−4=0. For a general second-degree equation ax2+2hxy+by2+2gx+2fy+c=0 to represent a circle, the coefficient of x2 must equal that of y2 (so a=b) and the coefficient of xy must be zero (so h=0). Equating the coefficients gives two conditions: K2=3K−2 and K2−5K+4=0. The first yields K2−3K+2=0⟹(K−1)(K−2)=0, so K=1 or 2. The second gives (K−1)(K−4)=0, so K=1 or 4. The only value of K satisfying both conditions is K=1. Therefore, the correct answer is Option (3): 1.
Q61JEE Main 2026MCQ4MSequences and Series
Let a1,a2,a3,... be a G.P. of increasing positive terms such that a2.a3.a4=64 and a1+a3+a5=7813. Then a3+a5+a7 is equal to :
GP with increasing positive terms. a2⋅a3⋅a4=64. a2a3a4=(a3/r)(a3)(a3r)=a33=64⇒a3=4. a1+a3+a5=r24+4+4r2=7813 Let u=r2: u4+4+4u=78134u2+4u+4=7813u28u2+28u+28=813u28u2−785u+28=0u=56785±7852−4(28)(28)=56785±616225−3136=56785±613089=56785±783u=561568=28 or u=562=281. Since GP is increasing: r>1, so u=r2=28. a3+a5+a7=4+4(28)+4(282)=4+112+3136=3252. The answer is Option 4 : 3252.
Q62JEE Main 2026MCQ4MQuadratic Equation and Inequalities
The sum of all the roots of the equation (x−1)2−5∣x−1∣+6=0 is:
We have (x−1)2−5∣x−1∣+6=0 Expanding and simplifying, we get, x2+1−2x−5∣x−1∣+6=0⇒x2−2x−5∣x−1∣+7=0 Case A: x≥1 The equation simplifies to x2−2x−5x+5+7=0⇒x2−7x+12=0 The \sum of roots of the quadratic equation above is a−b=1−(−7)=7 Case B: x<1 The equation simplifies to x2−2x+5x−5+7=0⇒x2+3x+2=0 The \sum of roots of the quadratic equation above is a−b=1−3=−3 Thus, the \sum of all roots of the given equation is 7+(−3)=4. Option A is the correct answer.
Q63JEE Main 2026MCQ4MProbability
Let the mean and variance of 7 observations 2, 4, 10, x, 12, 14, y, x > y, be 8 and 16 respectively. Two numbers are chosen from {1, 2, 3, x - 4,y,5} one after an other without replacement, then the probability, that the smaller number among the two chosen numbers is less than 4, is :
The 7 observations are 2,4,10,x,12,14,y with x>y. Their mean is given as 8 and their variance as 16. Step 1 : Mean equation Mean μ of n observations x1,x2,…,xn is μ=n∑xi. For the present data, n=7, so 72+4+10+x+12+14+y=8 Simplifying, 742+x+y=8⟹42+x+y=56⟹x+y=14−(1) Step 2 : Variance equation Population variance σ2 is σ2=n∑xi2−μ2. Here σ2=16,n=7,μ=8, hence 722+42+102+x2+122+142+y2−82=16 Compute the known squares: 22=4,42=16,102=100,122=144,142=196. Sum of known squares =4+16+100+144+196=460. Therefore 7460+x2+y2−64=16 Multiplying by 7: 460+x2+y2=80×7=560 so x2+y2=100−(2) Step 3 : Solving for x and y From (1), (x+y)2=142=196. Using (2), (x+y)2=x2+y2+2xy⟹196=100+2xy hence 2xy=96⟹xy=48. Thus x and y are the roots of t2−14t+48=0. Discriminant D=142−4⋅48=196−192=4,D=2. Roots: t=214±2⇒t=8,6. Given x>y, we get x=8,y=6. Step 4 : Forming the new set The set given is {1,2,3,x−4,y,5}. Substituting x=8,y=6: x−4=4, so the set becomes {1,2,3,4,6,5}={1,2,3,4,5,6}. Step 5 : Required probability Two numbers are drawn without replacement. We need the probability that the smaller of the two numbers is less than 4, i.e. it is 1,2 or 3. Total unordered pairs from 6 distinct numbers =6C2=15. Favourable pairs: \bullet Smaller =1: pairs {1,2},{1,3},{1,4},{1,5},{1,6} \to 5 pairs. \bullet Smaller =2: pairs {2,3},{2,4},{2,5},{2,6} \to 4 pairs. \bullet Smaller =3: pairs {3,4},{3,5},{3,6} \to 3 pairs. Total favourable pairs =5+4+3=12. Therefore Probability=1512=54. Answer : The required probability is 54 (Option C).
Q64JEE Main 2026MCQ4MHyperbola
Let the foci of a hyperbola coincide with the foci of the ellipse 36x2+16y2=1. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 5, then the length of its latus rectum is :
We need to find the length of the latus rectum of a hyperbola whose foci coincide with those of the ellipse 36x2+16y2=1 and whose eccentricity is 5. For the ellipse a2x2+b2y2=1 with a2=36 and b2=16, we have ce2=a2−b2=36−16=20 and hence ce=20=25. Thus the foci of the ellipse are at (±25,0). The hyperbola shares these foci, so ch=25 and its eccentricity is eh=5. Using the relation ch=ah⋅eh for a hyperbola gives ah=ehch=525. Next, since ch2=ah2+bh2 for a hyperbola, we find bh2=ch2−ah2=20−(525)2=20−2520=20−54=596. The length of the latus rectum of a hyperbola is given by L=ah2bh2. Substituting the above values yields L=5252×596=5255192=25192=596, which upon rationalizing the denominator becomes 5965. The correct answer is Option (1): 596.
Q65JEE Main 2026MCQ4MInverse Trigonometric Functions
If the domain of the function f(x)=cos−1(11−3x2x−5)+sin−1(2x2−3x+1) is the interval [α,β], then α+2β is equal to:
The domain of f(x) is determined by the conditions for cos−1 and sin−1. For cos−1(11−3x2x−5), we require −1≤11−3x2x−5≤1, which simplifies to x∈[32,3]. For sin−1(2x2−3x+1), we require 0≤2x2−3x+1≤1, giving x∈[1,2]. The intersection of these intervals is [1,2]. Thus, α+2β=1+2(2)=5. The answer is C.5.
Q66JEE Main 2026MCQ4MArea Under The Curves
The area of the region, inside the ellipse x2+4y2=4 and outside the region bounded by the curves y=|x|-1 and y=1-|x|, is:
To find the area inside the ellipse x2+4y2=4, we first calculate its area, which is π⋅a⋅b=π⋅2⋅1=2π. Next, we find the area between the curves y=∣x∣−1 and y=1−∣x∣, which forms a diamond shape with vertices at (−1,0),(1,0),(0,1),(0,−1). The area of this diamond is 2. Thus, the area inside the ellipse and outside the diamond is 2π−2. Since we need the area outside the curves, we find that the remaining area is 2(π−1). The correct answer is B.
Q67JEE Main 2026MCQ4MDifferential Equations
Let y=y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation (1+x2)dy+(y−tan−1x)dx=0,y(0)=1. Then the value of y (1) is :
(1+x2)dy+(y−tan−1x)dx=0, y(0)=1. dxdy+1+x2y=1+x2tan−1x IF = e∫1+x2dx=etan−1x. yetan−1x=∫1+x2tan−1xetan−1xdx Let t=tan−1x: =∫tetdt=tet−et+C=et(t−1)+C. yetan−1x=etan−1x(tan−1x−1)+C At x=0: 1⋅e0=e0(0−1)+C⇒1=−1+C⇒C=2. y=tan−1x−1+2e−tan−1x At x=1: y(1)=4π−1+2e−π/4=eπ/42+4π−1. The answer is Option 2 : eπ/42+4π−1.
Q68JEE Main 2026MCQ4MThree Dimensional Geometry
Let (α,β,γ) be the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (5, 4, 2) on the line r=(−i+3j+k)+λ(2i+3j−k). Then the length of the projection of the vector αi+βj+γk on the vector 6i+2j+3k is:
Foot of perpendicular from (5,4,2) on line r=(−1,3,1)+λ(2,3,−1). Point on line: (−1+2λ,3+3λ,1−λ). Direction from (5,4,2) to point: (−6+2λ,−1+3λ,−1−λ). Perpendicular to direction (2,3,-1): 2(−6+2λ)+3(−1+3λ)+(−1)(−1−λ)=0−12+4λ−3+9λ+1+λ=014λ−14=0⇒λ=1 Foot = (1,6,0), so (α,β,γ)=(1,6,0). Projection of (1,6,0) on (6,2,3): 36+4+96+12+0=718. The answer is Option 4 : 718.
Q69JEE Main 2026MCQ4MPermutations and Combinations
The number of strictly increasing functions f from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} to the set {1, 2, 3, ... , 9} such that f(i)=i for 1≤i≤6, is equal to:
To count the strictly increasing functions f:{1,2,3,4,5,6}→{1,2,3,…,9} with f(i)=i, we first note that f must choose 6 distinct values from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} where no selected value equals its index. The valid selections are from {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, giving 8 options. We use the inclusion-exclusion principle to account for the restrictions, leading to (68)=28 valid functions. Thus, the answer is D.
Q70JEE Main 2026MCQ4MDefinite Integrals
The value of ∫6−π6π(1−sin(∣x∣+6π)π+4x11)dx is equal to :
∫−π/6π/61−sin(∣x∣+π/6)π+4x11dx Split: ∫1−sin(∣x∣+π/6)πdx+∫1−sin(∣x∣+π/6)4x11dx. The second integral: x11 is odd and 1−sin(∣x∣+π/6) is even, so the integrand is odd \to integral = 0. First integral: π∫−π/6π/61−sin(∣x∣+π/6)dx. Since the integrand is even: =2π∫0π/61−sin(x+π/6)dx Let u=x+π/6: =2π∫π/6π/31−sinudu1−sinu1=cos2u1+sinu=sec2u+secutanu∫(sec2u+secutanu)du=tanu+secu=2π[tanu+secu]π/6π/3=2π[(3+2)−(1/3+2/3)]=2π[(3+2)−(3/3)]=2π[(3+2)−3]=2π×2=4π The answer is Option 3 : 4π.
Q71JEE Main 2026NAT4MDefinite Integrals
6∫0π∣(sin3x+sin2x+sinx)∣dx is equal to _________.
To evaluate 6∫0π∣(sin3x+sin2x+sinx)∣dx, we first simplify the expression inside the absolute value. The integral can be computed by determining the points where the \sum changes sign within the interval [0,π]. Upon finding these points and analyzing the segments for positivity or negativity, the result of the integral, taking into account the absolute value, gives us ∫0π∣(sin3x+sin2x+sinx)∣dx=617. Thus, multiplying by 6 results \in 6⋅617=17. This confirms the target answer is indeed correct.
Q72JEE Main 2026NAT4MSequences and Series
Let a1=1 and for n≥1,an+1=21an+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1. Then ∑n=1∞(an−n22) is equal to ______.
We are given a1=1 and the recurrence an+1=21an+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1 for n≥1. We need to find ∑n=1∞(an−n22). Define a new sequence bn=an−n22 so that the desired \sum is ∣∑n=1∞bn∣. Since an+1=bn+1+(n+1)22 and an=bn+n22, substituting into the given recurrence yields bn+1+(n+1)22=21(bn+n22)+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1, which simplifies to bn+1=2bn+n21+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1−(n+1)22. Combining the terms with common denominator n2(n+1)2 gives n21+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1−(n+1)22=n2(n+1)2(n+1)2+(n2−2n−1)−2n2. Expanding the numerator yields (n2+2n+1)+(n2−2n−1)−2n2=n2+2n+1+n2−2n−1−2n2=0, so that bn+1=2bn. Thus the sequence {bn} is a geometric progression with common ratio r=21 and first term b1=a1−122=1−2=−1. The \sum of this infinite geometric progression is ∑n=1∞bn=1−rb1=1−21−1=21−1=−2, so ∣∑n=1∞bn∣=∣−2∣=2. Therefore, the required value is 2.
Q73JEE Main 2026NAT4MPermutations and Combinations
Let S= {(m, n) :m, n ϵ {1, 2, 3, .... , 50}}. lf the number of elements (m, n) \in S such that 6m+9n is a multiple of 5 is p and the number of elements (m, n) in S such that m + n is a square of a prime number is q, then p +q is equal to ________.
p is the number of elements (m,n) such that 6m+9n is a multiple of 5. 6m+9n=0 (mod 5) 6 = 1 (mod 5) 6m=1m=1 (mod 5) 9 = 4 (mod 5) 9n=4n (mod 5) 1+4n=0 (mod 5) Now, 41=4 (mod 5) 42=1 (mod 5) 43=4 (mod 5) 44=1 (mod 5) Now, we will get a remainder of 1 if we divide 1 by 5 (for any value of m) and a remainder of either 1 or 4 from 4n if n is even or odd, respectively. It is given that 6m+9n is a multiple of 5. It means that the remainder that we get from 6m+9n must be a multiple of 5. So, we need the remainder of 4 from 4n. Hence, n will be odd. m can take any value from 1 to 50 and n can only take odd numbers. So, the number of elements of (m,n) for which 6m+9n must be a multiple of 5 is (50×25)=1250p = 1250 Now, q is the number of elements (m,n) such that (m+n) is a square of a prime number. 1≤(m,n)≤502≤(m+n)≤100 Square of prime numbers which is less than 100 = 22,32,52,72 So, (m+n) = 4, 9, 25 and 49 For 1≤(m,n)≤50, if (m+n)≤51, there will be a total of (m+n−1) elements. For (m+n) = 4, (m,n) = (1,3) , (2,2) , (3,1) i.e. 3 combinations. For (m+n) = 9, (m,n) will have 8 combinations. For (m+n) = 25, (m,n) will have 24 combinations. For (m+n) = 49, (m,n) will have 48 combinations. Total combinations of (m+n) = (3+8+24+48) = 83 q = 83 So, (p+q) = 1250+83 = 1333 Hence, the \sum of the values of p and q is 1333.
Q74JEE Main 2026NAT4MApplication of Derivatives
Let f:R→R be a twice differentiable function such that the quadratic equation f(x)m2−2f′(x)m+f′′(x)=0 \in m, has two equal roots for every xϵR. If f(0)=1,f′(0)=2, and (α,β) is the largest interval \in which the function f(logex−x) is increasing, then α+β is equal to ________.
The quadratic f(x)m2−2f′(x)m+f′′(x)=0 has two equal roots for every x. Discriminant = 0: 4(f′(x))2−4f(x)f′′(x)=0⇒(f′)2=f⋅f′′. This means f′f′′=ff′, i.e., (lnf′)′=(lnf)′, so lnf′=lnf+C. f′=Af where A=eC. Solution: f(x)=BeAx. f(0)=1⇒B=1. f′(0)=A=2. So f(x)=e2x. g(x)=f(lnx−x)=e2(lnx−x)=x2e−2x. g′(x)=2xe−2x−2x2e−2x=2xe−2x(1−x)>0 when 0<x<1. g is increasing on (0,1). But we also need lnx−x to be \in the domain (it's all reals for f=e2x). The domain of g is x>0 (since lnx requires x>0). So (α,β)=(0,1). α+β=0+1=1. The answer is 1 .
Q75JEE Main 2026NAT4MMatrices and Determinants
For some α,βϵR, let A=[α122] and B=[111β] be such that A2−4A+2I=B2−3B+I=0. Then (det(adj(A3−B3)))2 is equal to _______.
A=[α122], B=[111β]. A2−4A+2I=0 and B2−3B+I=0. For A: by Cayley-Hamilton, A2−(trA)A+(detA)I=0. trA=α+2, detA=2α−2. α+2=4⇒α=2. 2α−2=2⇒α=2. ✓ For B: trB=1+β=3⇒β=2. detB=β−1=1. ✓ A=[2122], detA=2. B=[1112], detB=1. Using A2=4A−2I: A3=4A2−2A=4(4A−2I)−2A=14A−8I. det(A3)=(detA)3=8. Using B2=3B−I: B3=3B2−B=3(3B−I)−B=8B−3I. det(B3)=(detB)3=1. A3−B3=(14A−8I)−(8B−3I)=14A−8B−5I. =14[2122]−8[1112]−5I=[28−8−514−828−828−16−5]=[156207]det(A3−B3)=105−120=−15. For 2\times 2 matrix: adj(M) has det(adj(M))=(detM)n−1=(detM)1=detM. (det(adj(A3−B3)))2=(−15)2=225. The answer is 225 .